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Science and Technology

1) Which one of the following technique can be used to establish the paternity of child?

a) Protein analysis

b) Chromosome counting

c) Quantitative analysis of DNA

d) DNA finger print

2) The first Indian artificial satellite was named:

a) Aryabhatta

b) Explore I

c) Sputnik I

d) Luna 3

3) The first computer India is known as:

a) Dharma

b) Siddharth

c) Param

d) Gati

4) The symptom of anaemia is:

a) Loose or wrinked skin

b) Difficulty in breathing

c) Yellowish eyes

d) Edema of liver

5) In surgery, what is arthroplasty?

a) Open heart surgery

b) Kidney transplant

c) Hip joint replacement

d) Blood transfusion

6) The intermediate range nuclear capable missile developed indigenously is named:

a) Agni

b) Prithvi

c) Nag

d) Trishul

7) The computer was invented by:

a) Faraday

b) Maxwell

c) Babbage

d) Bill Gates

8) Which of the following is the name of the first indigenously developed Indian Super Computer?

a) Param

b) Shakti

c) Dharma

d) Gati

9) The instrument which measure the movement of clouds by casting their images through a peephole on to a black mirrored surface is called

a) Periscope

b) Nephoscope

c) Stethoscope

d) Gyroscope

10) Genetic engineering is possible only due to the role of certain specific enzymes that cut DNA at particular points of the sequence. These enzymes are called:

a) Nucleases

b) Restriction enzymes

c) DNA polymerases

d) Nitrogenases

11) The intensity of the waves generated by an earthquake and its time of occurrence is recorded by a:

a) Barometer

b) Thermometer

c) Seismograph

d) Galvanometer

12) A genetic disorder characterized by poor blood circulation and abnormal hemoglobin molecules is better known as:

a) Sickle cell anemia

b) Haemophillia

c) Phenyl ketonuria

d) Huntington’s chorea

13) The process of preparation of soap is known as:

a) Saponification

b) Calcification

c) Hydroxylation

d) Methylation

14) Who amongst the following initiated the age of genetic engineering in 1937 by inserting an amphibian ribosomal RNA gene into a bacterial plasmid?

a) Cohen and Boyer

b) J.C Sanford

c) Watson and Crick

d) Roger Beachy

15) Superconductivity results when matter is:

a) Heated to very high temperature

b) Compre ssed to very high pressure

c) Subjected to very low pressure

d) Cooled to very low temperature

16) All of the following diseases are caused by viruses except:

a) Jaundice

b) Influenza

c) Mumps

d) Typhoid

17) Penicillin is given to a patient in order to :

a) Cure hereditary disease

b) Cure all diseases

c) Prevent any rise in body temperature

d) Prevent the growth of several types of diseases caused by bacteria

18) BCG is:

a) Curative medicine for tuberculosis

b) Preventive medicine for tuberculosis

c) A disinfectant

d) An antiseptic

19) What is Robot?

a) A type of rocket

b) A bomb

c) A machine that resembles a person and does mechanical routine tasks

d) An animal found in the jungle of Africa

20) M. A. B stands for:

a) Man and Biosphere Programme

b) Man and Biology Programme

c) Mammals and Biosphere Programme

d) None of the above

21) Element used for atomic power is:

a) Calcium

b) Sodium

c) Beryllium

d) Uranium

22) A pure semiconductor

a) Has low resistance

b) Is called an intrinsic semiconductor

c) Both of the above

d) None of the above

23) AIDS disease is caused by:

a) Virus

b) Sexual contact

c) Bacteria

d) Protozoa

24) The first indigenously built missile boat is named as:

a) INS Vibhuti

b) INS Vicrant

c) INS Shilpi

d) INS Mana

25) Which of the following is an example of Bio-technology?

a) Using electron microscopes

b) Using technology to stabilize the life process

c) Using modern technique to understand the evolution of life

d) Using micro organisms to synthesise insulin

26) Autopsy means:

a) Curing a disease through self-medication

b) Postmortem examination of a human body

c) Curing a disease through auto suggestion

d) Becoming diseased through abuse of drugs

27) Introduction of a steel plough in the place of a wooden plough is an instance of:

a) Advanced technology

b) Appropriate technology

c) Redundant technology

d) Absolute technology

28) Eco mark is given to Indian products that are:

a) Pure and unadulterated

b) Rich in protein

c) Environment friendly

d) Economically viable

29) Dolly is the first clone mammal in the world of:

a) Buffalo

b) Goat

c) Sheep

d) Monkey

30) India’s biggest nuclear research reactor is known as

a) Apsara

b) Dhruva

c) Cirus

d) Purnima

31) We use the term match number in connection with:

a) Sound

b) Submarines

c) Aircraft

d) Spacecraft

32) Which of the following units measures the memory of the computer?

a) Volts

b) Amperes

c) Ohms

d) Bits

33) Maximum gobar gas is produced during

a) Summer

b) Winter

c) Rainy season

d) All seasons

34) The first Indian satellite Aryabhatta, was launched into space from a cosmodrome of:

a) France

b) USA

c) USSR

d) West Germany

35) The Vikram Sarabhai Space centre is at:

a) Ahmedabad

b) Bangolore

c) Sriharikota

c) Trivandrum

36) The science dealing with the study of inheritance and variation is called:

a) Genetics

b) Evolution

c) Morphology

d) Cytology

37) Genes are made up of:

a) Histones

b) Non histones

c) Proteins

d) Polynucleotides

38) Which is the first artificial satellite to be put into orbit on October 4, 1957?

a) Sputnik 1

b) Apollo 7

c) Explorer 1

d) Solar Max

39) CNG is used for:

a) Protecting pollution

b) Saving diesel

c) Avoiding the use of petrol

d) All the above

40) Bronchitis is a disease of:

a) Blood

b) Liver

c) Intestine

d) Respiratory tract

41) The molecules responsible for storing the genetic code are:

a) DNA

b) RNA

c) Protein

d) Chromosome

42) Test tube baby means:

a) Ovum fertilized and developed in test tube

b) Ovum fertilized in test tube and developed in test tubes

c) Ovum fertilized in test tubes and developed in uterns

d) Ovum developed without fertilization in test tubes

43) What is the basic characteristic of antigens:

a) They capable of stimulating the formation of haemoglobin in the blood

b) They destroy hemoglobin

c) They are capable of defending themselves against attack by antibodies

d) They are capable of stimulating formation of antibodies

44) What was the disease that led to the discovery of first anti viral vaccine?

a) Cancer

b) Tetanus

c) Polio

d) Small pox

45) Which is the most fast spreading disease?

a) Malaria

b) Plague

c) Poliomyelitis

d) Leprosy

46) The central Food Technological Research Institute is located at:

a) Kolkata

b) Kanpur

c) Mysore

d) Ranchi

47) The international Rice Research Institute is located in:

a) Philippines

b) Thailand

c) Indonesia

d) Malaysia

48) AIDS affects

a) Blood cells of human body

b) Immune system of human body

c) Growth of human body

d) All of the above

49) Which of the following fertilizers is used after sowing the seeds?

a) Nitrate

b) Potash

c) Green manure

d) Phosphorus

50) Swelling of a strained foot is reduced by soaking in hot water containing a large amount of common salt. This is because of a phenomenon called:

a) Osmosis

b) Plasmolysis

c) Electrolysis

c) None of these

51) In paints, the pigment is responsible for:

a) Durability

b) Colour

c) Smoothness

d) Glossy face

52) The working principle of a washing machine is:

a) Centrifugation

b) Dialysis

c) Reverse osmosis

d) Diffusion

53) Who invented ‘radar’?

a) J.H. Van Tassell

b) Wilhelm K. Roentgen

c) P.T. Farnsworth

d) A.H Taylor and Zeo C Young

54) Which one of the following is a useful functional association between fungi and the root of higher plants?

a) Biofertiliser

b) Coralloid root

c) Lichen

d) Mycorrhiza

55) Low temperatures (cryogenics) find application in:

a) Space travel, surgery and magnetic levitation

b) Surgery magnetic levitation and telemetry

c) Space travel, surgery and telemetry

d) Space travel, magnetic levitation and telemetry

56) Pure silicon is used as a:

a) Conductor

b) Insulator

c) Non conductor

d) Semiconductor

57) The most common type of fingerprint encountered are

a) Whorls

b) Loops

c) Arches

d) Composites

58) Indian farmers are unhappy over the introduction of ‘Terminator Seed Technology’ because the seeds produced by this technology are expected to:

a) Show poor germination

b) Form low yielding plants despite the high quality

c) Give rise to sexually sterile plants

d) Give rise to plants incapable of forming viable seeds

59) Which one of the following genetic diseases in sex linked?

a) Royal haemophilia

b) Tay sachs

c) Cystic fibrosis

d) Hypertension

60) Guided missiles are:

a) Missile that guide the soldiers in the army

b) Unmanned self propelled space or air vehicles carrying explosive war head

c) Missiles that are launched by the gliders

d) Ordinary war planes with a very sharp striking power and deep thrust

61) Prithvi is:

a) Indigenously developed intermediate range ballistic missile

b) Indigenously developed nuclear bomb

c) Indigenously developed nuclear reactor

d) Indigenously developed surface to surface missile

62) National institute of immunology and national instate of Science, technology and Development Studies are located in:

a) Hyderabad

b) Bangalore

c) Mumbai

d) New Delhi

Polity

1) How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution?

a) Nine

b) Twenty

c) Twelve

d) Eleven

2) Media is known as

a) First Estate

b) Second Estate

c) Third Estate

d) Fourth Estate

3) We all know child labour is totally banned in India (Article 24). As per the Constitution of India ‘Child’ means a person who has not completed

a) 16 years of his/her age

b) 14 years of his/her age

c) 18 years of his/her age

d) 20 years of his/her age

4) The Morley – Minto reforms were announced in

a) 1906

b) 1909

c) 1911

d) None of these

5) Upper age limit for appointment as Supreme Court Judge is

a) 58 years

b) 60 years

c) 62 years

d) 65 years

6) Who said that the Directive Principle of State Policy is just like “a cheque on bank payable at the convenience of the bank?

a) Pandit Nehru

b) K.T. shah

c) B.R. Ambedkar

d) N.G. Ranga

7) The Concept of “Directive Principle of State Policy” incorporated in the Constitution of India was borrowed from the Constitution of

a) Australia

b) USA

c) Canada

d) Ireland

8) In which part of the Indian Constitution, the fundamental duties are enshrined?

a) IV B

b) IV A

c) V

d) IV

9) The seat of Kerala high court is located at:

a) Kottayam

b) Thiruvananthapuram

c) Kollam

d) Ernakulam

9) A blind folded woman holding a balance in her hand is a symbol for _____

a) Pease

b) Justice

c) Mourning

d) Distress  

10) Which country is following One Party System?

a) Mongolia

b) Spain

c) Chile

d) China

11) With the 92^nd constitutional amendment, how many new languages were added to the 8^th schedule of the constitution?

a) 2

b) 5

c) 4

d) 3

12) Quo-warranto means

a) Without authority

b) With what authority

c) A warrant

d) Petition

13) Which one of the following languages is not specified in the Eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution?

a) Urdu

b) English

c) Sindhi

d) Sanskrit

14) Which is the example for Plural Executive?

a) USA

b) UK

c) India

d) Switzerland

15) In a parliamentary system to whom is the executive responsible?

a) President

b) Legislature

c) House of people

d) Judiciary

16) How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?

a) 2

b) 10

c) 12

d) 8

17) Which of the following states has no Panchayati Raj Institution at all?

a) Assam

b) Kerala

c) Tripura

d) Nagaland

18) The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is:

a) 270

b) 250

c) 300

d) 545

19) The number of members nominated to Lok Sabha by the President is:

a) 4

b) 2

c) 5

d) 12

20) Which one of the following subject is not contained in the Union list?

a) Currency

b) Agriculture

c) Foreign Affairs

d) Union Duties

21) A judge of Supreme Court retires at the age of:

a) 55 years

b) 65 years

c) 60 years

d) 58 years

22) Fundamentals Duties were introduced in the Constitution by:

a) 40^th Amendment

b) 42^nd Amendment

c) 43^rd Amendment

d) 44^th Amendment

23) Linguistic reorganization of state took place in:

a) 1947

b) 1950

c) 1956

d) 1971

24) Implementing laws is the function of:

a) Executive

b) Legislature

c) Judiciary

d) Cabinet

25) Education is included in which of the following lists?

a) Central list

b) State list

c) Concurrent list

d) Local list

26) Through which Constitutional Amendment was the Nagarpalika bill passed?

a) 70

b) 72

c) 73

d) 74

27) Which of the following article/ articles read with the word ‘socialist’ used in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution enabled the Supreme Court to deduce a fundamental right to equal pay for equal work?

a) Article 14

b) Article 14 & 15

c) Article 14 15 & 16

d) Article 14 & 16

28) Free and compulsory education for all children is provided until they attain age of:

a) 21 years

b) 14 years

c) 16 years

d) 18 years

29) Which High Court has jurisdiction over the State of the Arunachal Pradesh?

a) Bombay

b) Calcutta

c) Guwahati

d) Chandigarh

30) Constitituion of India came into force in

a) 1951

b) 1956

c) 1950

d) 1949

31) The Indian Constitution is regarded as:

a) Unitary

b) Federal

c) Parliamentary

d) Federal in form and Unitary in spirit

32) The concept of “Welfare state” is defined in:

a) Preamble

b) Fundamental Rights

c) Directive Principles

d) Fundamental Duties

33) Which one of the following is issued by the court in case of an illegal detention of a person?

a) Habeas Corpus

b) Mandamus

c) Certiorari

d) Quo Warranto

34) The proposal for the creation of new All-India Services can be considered only:

a) If majority of State Legislatures make such demand

b) If Lok sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority

c) If the rajya sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority

d) None of the above

35) “Eye of an eye and tooth for a tooth” is the guiding principle of:

a) Attributive theory of justice

b) Retributive of theory of justice

c) Deterrent theory of justice

d) Reformative theory of justice

36) The authority to specify which castes shall be deemed to be scheduled castes rests with the:

a) Governor

b) Prime Minister

c) President

d) Commissioner for Scheduled Castes and Tribes

37) The first speaker of Lok Sabha was:

a) S. Radhakrishnan

b) G.V. Maviankar

c) M.Ananthasayanam

d) Sardar Hukum Singh

38) The Vice President is the ex officio Chairman of the _____

a) Loc Sabha

b) Rajya Sabha

c) Planning Commission         

d) National Development Council

39) Which one of the following committees in not a Standing Committee of the Parliament?

a) Public Account Committee

b) Estimates Committee

c) Committee on Public Undertakings

d) Consultative Committee to the Ministry of Finance

40) For which one of the following commissions, there is no provision in the Indian Constitution?

a) Election Commission

b) Finance Commission

c) Planning Commission

d) Union Public Service Commission

41) Persons may change but rules should not change is the principle of:

a) Absolute Monarchy

b) Constitutional Government

c) Unwritten constitution

d) Republic

42) Who was not a politician?

a) I.K. Gujral

b) S.L. Bahuguna

c) J. jayalalitha

d) H.N Bahuguna

43) Who of the following enjoys the rank of Cabinet Minister in Union Cabinet?

a) Judge of Supreme Court

b) Secretary to Government of India

c) Political Adviser to PM

d) Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission

44) Who approves the work done by various departments of the government?

a) Speaker of the state Assembly

b) Members of legislative assembly

c) Member of Districts Board

d) None of these

45) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of:

a) The Village, the Block and the District levels

b) The Mandal and the District level

c) The Village, the District and the State level

d) The Village, the Mandal, the District and the State level

46) The Constituent Assembly was presided over by:

a) Dr Rajendra Prasad

b) Dr B. R Ambedkar

c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

d) Dr K. M. Munshi

47) Under which article of the Constitution of India, a citizen can go to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his Fundamental Rights?

a) Article 31

b) Article 29

c) Article 32

d) Article 10

48) Which of the following two words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42^nd Amendment?

a) Sovereign and democratic

b) Secular and Socialist

c) Secular and Democratic

d) Democratic and Republic

49) Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right now?

a) Right to equality

b) Right to property

c) Right to Constitutional remedies

d) None of these

50) Secularism in the Constitutional of India stands for:

a) Equal respect to all religions

b) Non-interference of the state in religious affairs

c) According the status of state religion to all religions in India

d) None of the above

51) The President calls the Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament when:

a) Any constitutional amendment bill is to be passed

b) A money bill is rejected by the Rajya Sabha

c) An ordinary bill is not passed by both Houses of Parliament

d) The President wished to do so

52) The Indian Constitution was adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly of Indian on:

a) 9 December 1949

b) 26 January 1946

c) 26 November 1949

d) 26 January 1950

53) The Preamble of our Constitution reads ---- India is a:

a) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

b) Sovereign Democratic Socialist Secular Republic

c) Socialist Democratic Secular Republic

d) Democratic Sovereign Secular Socialist Republic

54) The main feature of the Panchayati Raj in India is:

a) Rolling plan

b) Decentralisation of power

c) Money plan

d) Sharing of power between the Centre and the States

55) The President of India is elected by:

a) The people of India

b) All the members of Parliament

c) All the elected Members of Parliament

d) All the elected Members of the Parliament and of State Legislative Assemblies

56) Who conducts election to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of the State?

a) President and Governol respectively

b) Prime Minister and Chief Minister Respectvely

c) Speakers of the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemlies

d) Chief Election Commissioner